My initial MRI without contrast was done with the following sequences: 1 Sagittal T1; 2 Axial T2 Flair, diffusion, 3. Coronal T2 and the findings were suspicious for a mass with recommendation for follow up with contrast induced images. A week later, the MRI with/without contrast was done, which found a 1.4 cm acoustic schwannoma with the sequences: 1 Axial T1, Flair. Thin section axial space and T1 of the bilateral internal auditory canals and thin section post contrast axial and coronal of the bilateral internal auditory canals with fat saturation. Post contrast axial T2 of the entire brain. The first line in the comment refers to minimal increase in T2 signal abnormality.
I have no idea what these sequences mean. Even though T2 is mentioned in the report, should I assume this was done with T1. Would a prescription for a follow up study need to specify without contrast and using T2? What are my options if the MRI center and/or the ordering doctor tell me I must have contrast? Should I show him the PubMed abstract?
My first appointment with the neuro-otologist (at Jefferson, Philadelphia) is this week.